Is TD less likely with second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics?

Is the risk of TD with second-generation (“atypical”) antipsychotics really lower than that with first-generation (“typical”) antipsychotics? Or was this a misleading claim by pharmaceutical companies that manufactured what were the much more expensive second-generation antipsychotics? This question is of great clinical importance, isn’t it, because we need to tell patients about the risk and…